AP US Government Unit 1 Practice Test: Foundations of Democracy

Below is our free AP US Government unit 1 practice test. This unit is called Foundations of Democracy. It covers types of democracy, government power, individual rights, founding documents such as the Articles of Confederation and the Constitution, and federalism.

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Question 1

Which of the following is mentioned in the Declaration of Independence?

A	Checks and balances
B	Separation of powers
C	Judicial review
D	Natural rights

Question 1 Explanation:

The correct answer is (D). The Declaration of Independence mentions "unalienable Rights" such as "Life, Liberty, and the pursuit of Happiness," which are examples of natural rights. These rights are considered inherent and fundamental to all individuals. The other concepts, like checks and balances, separation of powers, and judicial review, are associated with the U.S. Constitution but are not mentioned in the Declaration of Independence.

Question 2

Which of the following is an accurate comparison between the Articles of Confederation and the Constitution?

A	A
B	B
C	C
D	D

Question 2 Explanation:

The correct answer is (D). All of the powers in the Constitution column are part of the Constitution. Under the Articles of Confederation, the president was elected by Congress and had almost no power, so answer (A) may be eliminated. Congress did not have the power to tax, which rules out answer (B), and there was only one branch of government, the legislature, which rules out answer (C). The legislature consisted of a unicameral congress under the Articles of Confederation, so answer (D) is correct.

Question 3

Which of the following events indicated that the Articles of Confederation needed to be strengthened?

A	The Battle of Yorktown
B	The election of 1785
C	Shays’ Rebellion
D	The Whiskey Rebellion

Question 3 Explanation:

The correct answer is (C). Many prominent Americans agreed that the Articles of Confederation should be strengthened when the governments of Massachusetts and the United States were unable to halt Shays’ Rebellion. Later, after the Constitution was adopted, the new, stronger government stopped the Whiskey Rebellion, demonstrating that the new Constitution could be effective.

Question 4

Which of the following principles is represented in Article IV of the Constitution?

A	Federalism
B	Judicial review
C	Limited government
D	Popular sovereignty

Question 4 Explanation:

The correct answer is (A). Article IV of the Constitution deals with the relationships between the states and the federal government, as well as the relationships among the states themselves. This includes provisions like the Full Faith and Credit Clause, which ensures that states respect the laws and judicial decisions of other states. These provisions reflect the principle of federalism, which is the division of power between the national government and the state governments.

Question 5

Questions 5–7 refer to the chart below:

Based on the chart above and what you know about United States government, which of the following is true?

A	Federal grants to state and local governments have increased at a rate greater than the rate of inflation
B	Federal grants to state and local governments have increased at about the same rate as inflation
C	Federal grants to state and local governments have increased at a rate lower than the rate of inflation
D	Federal grants to state and local governments have not increased at all

Question 5 Explanation:

The correct answer is (A). Inflation has increased annually at an average rate of 3.75 percent since 1960, but the graph on the left shows grants increasing at a far greater rate.

Question 6

Which of the following programs would most likely be covered under the largest section of the pie chart?

A	Insurance subsidies
B	Medicare
C	Medicaid
D	Veterans benefits

Question 6 Explanation:

The correct answer is (C). Medicaid is a federally-funded state-run healthcare program. Medicare (B) and the Veterans Administration (D) are both run by the federal government. Insurance subsidies (A) do not relate to the question.

Question 7

Which of the following would be a requirement for the states if they were to receive the grants shown above?

A	Block grants
B	Dual federalism
C	Discretionary grants
D	Conditions of aid

Question 7 Explanation:

The correct answer is (D). Conditions of aid in federal grants refer to the requirements or stipulations that recipients must fulfill in order to receive and retain the grant funds.

Block grants (A) come without conditions of aid and can be used by state and local governments for almost anything. Dual federalism (B) is a form of federalism in which the state and federal governments have divided responsibilities. Discretionary grants (C) are competitive and based on merit.

Question 8

An impeachment hearing is an example of

A	Checks and balances
B	Popular sovereignty
C	Rule of law
D	Separation of powers

Question 8 Explanation:

The correct answer is (A). In an impeachment hearing, Congress puts a check on the president, the vice president, high-level officers of the executive branch, or judges.

Question 9

Which of the following statements would a strict constructionist most likely agree with regarding a Supreme Court case legalizing abortions?

A	It is a correct decision since women should have a right to make their own decisions regarding pregnancy
B	It is an incorrect decision since life begins at conception
C	It should be a state decision not court decision since the Constitution does not address the topic
D	It should be up to federal courts since right to privacy is implied in the Constitution

Question 9 Explanation:

The correct answer is (C). A strict constructionist interprets the Constitution narrowly, based on its explicit text and the original intent of the framers. Since the Constitution does not explicitly address the issue of abortion, a strict constructionist would likely argue that the federal courts should not make a ruling on it, and instead, the decision should be left to the states.

Question 10

Which of the following branches of government would be the strongest and weakest respectively according to James Madison and Alexander Hamilton?

A	Legislative; Executive
B	Legislative; Judicial
C	Executive; Legislative
D	Executive; Judicial

Question 10 Explanation:

The correct answer is (B). The answer is derived from several writings, but in particular, it draws from The Federalist No. 51 and The Federalist No. 78. There are also clues found in the Constitution itself; Article I is much longer than Article III and lists specific powers delegated to Congress, which was done to keep Congress from overreaching its authority. Finally, George Washington limited his use of the veto to legislation that he thought was unconstitutional. The executive branch is now much more powerful than it was in the eighteenth century. Interestingly, the Anti-Federalists accurately predicted that the executive branch would grow in power.

Question 11

Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of the Great (Connecticut) Compromise?

A	It created the electoral college
B	It allowed Congress to ban the importation of slaves after twenty years
C	It gave equal consideration to both the Virginia Plan and the New Jersey Plan
D	It accepted many of the provisions of the Virginia Plan but retained an upper house of Congress based on equality among the states

Question 11 Explanation:

The correct answer is (D). The Great (Connecticut) Compromise settled the debate over representation, which eliminates answers (A) and (B). The Great Compromise did not accept the Virginia Plan and the New Jersey Plan equally. The Great Compromise accepted most provisions of the Virginia Plan, including a bicameral legislature. The New Jersey Plan included a unicameral legislature in which each state had one vote.

Question 12

In James Madison’s view, a large republic

A	Was a democracy
B	Was based on majority rule
C	Would prevent a tyranny of the majority
D	Would stretch from the Atlantic Ocean to the Appalachian Mountains and possibly further west

Question 12 Explanation:

The correct answer is (C). Madison opposed democracy (A) because, in a pure democracy, the majority could take away the rights of a minority. Hence, majority rule (B) was also something Madison was against. The United States government is not based on majority rule; it is based on majority rule with minority rights. Answer (D) is the definition of manifest destiny.

Question 13

Which of the following systems of government does the United States have that makes it different than most European countries?

A	Federalism
B	Unitary
C	Confederation
D	Authoritarian

Question 13 Explanation:

The correct answer is (A). The United States operates under a federal system of government, where power is divided between a national government and state governments. This is different from most European countries, which typically have unitary systems, where power is centralized in the national government.

Question 14

Which of the following is an accurate comparison between Federalists and Anti-Federalists?

A	A
B	B
C	C
D	D

Question 14 Explanation:

The correct answer is (D). According to Brutus No. 1, the states were closer to the people and could, therefore, best safeguard the people’s rights.

Hamilton and Jefferson both supported the Constitution and were, thus, both Federalists before the Federalists became a political party. Jefferson was never an Anti-Federalist. Therefore, answer (A) may be eliminated. Answers (B) and (C) are reversed.

Question 15

Which of the following is an accurate comparison regarding federal power and state power?

A	A
B	B
C	C
D	D

Question 15 Explanation:

The correct answer is (B). The commerce clause, the supremacy clause, and reserved powers grant powers to Congress. They helped move the United States from a Confederation of states to a unified country under a federal system of government. The necessary and proper clause (also known as the elastic clause) also strengthened the powers of Congress, so answer (A) may be eliminated. The equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment (C) has been interpreted by the Supreme Court so that almost every part of the Bill of Rights now applies to the states, which effectively weakens state authority restrict civil rights and liberties. Thus, answer (C) may be eliminated. United States v. Lopez ruled federal gun-free school zones unconstitutional and, thus, returned some power to the states. Answer (D), therefore, may be eliminated. The Tenth Amendment says, “The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.” It, therefore, enhances state power.

Question 16

Which of the following scenarios would be considered an unconstitutional use of state power?

A	California creates a single-payer healthcare system
B	New York places a tax on cranberries imported from Massachusetts
C	Texas puts extra law enforcement officers along its border with Mexico
D	Wisconsin decreases the drinking age to 19 years of age

Question 16 Explanation:

The correct answer is (B). States are not allowed to place tariffs on goods made outside their borders. Under the Tenth Amendment, a state may create a healthcare system for its residents (A). A state may place state law enforcement officers almost anywhere within its borders (C). One might think answer (D) is correct; however, the 21-year-old drinking age is not a federal law. A state can opt for a lower drinking age if it does not mind losing its federal highways funds. Currently, all fifty states have a 21-year-old drinking age.

Question 17

Questions 17–20 refer to the passage below:

If a faction consists of less than a majority, relief is supplied by the republican principle, which enables the majority to defeat its sinister views by regular vote. It may clog the administration, it may convulse the society; but it will be unable to execute and mask its violence under the forms of the Constitution. When a majority is included in a faction, the form of popular government, on the other hand, enables it to sacrifice to its ruling passion or interest both the public good and the rights of other citizens. To secure the public good and private rights against the danger of such a faction, and at the same time to preserve the spirit and the form of popular government, is then the great object to which our inquiries are directed. Let me add that it is the great desideratum by which this form of government can be rescued from the opprobrium under which it has so long labored, and be recommended to the esteem and adoption of mankind.

—James Madison, The Federalist No. 10

Which of the following is an accurate statement that is included in the passage above?

A	Democracies are best able to control factions
B	A Republic is best able to control factions
C	States are best able to control factions
D	Factions do not need to be controlled

Question 17 Explanation:

The correct answer is (B). In Federalist No. 10, James Madison argues that a large republic is the best form of government to control the effects of factions. He believes that in a republic, the majority can control the influence of factions through regular voting, and the system of representation helps mitigate the dangers posed by majority factions, protecting the public good and individual rights.

Question 18

Which of the following comes closest to Madison’s notion of a faction?

A	Bureaucratic agency
B	Interest group
C	Military interest
D	Political party

Question 18 Explanation:

The correct answer is (B). In Federalist No. 10, Madison defines a faction as a group of individuals, either a minority or majority, united by a common interest or passion that is adverse to the rights of others or the common good. This description aligns most closely with the modern concept of an interest group, which is an organization that advocates for specific policy interests, sometimes at the expense of broader societal needs.

Question 19

Which of the following theories of government comes closest to the main point of The Federalist No. 10?

A	Bureaucratic
B	Elite
C	Participatory
D	Pluralistic

Question 19 Explanation:

The correct answer is (D). The pluralistic theory involves many different groups competing for power and/or influence. The bureaucratic view (A) is the theory that bureaucratic agencies control government. The elite view (B) involves just a few key players. Participatory democracy (C) emphasizes the broad participation of constituents in the direction and operation of political systems.

Question 20

Which of the following Constitutional amendments most directly protects the activities of factions?

A	First
B	Second
C	Fourth
D	Ninth

Question 20 Explanation:

The correct answer is (A). Interest groups are protected by the First Amendment rights to assemble as well as freedom of speech and the press. The Second Amendment (B) is the right to bear arms. The Fourth Amendment (C) protects against unreasonable search and seizure. The Ninth Amendment (D) protects the rights of the people that are not explicitly mentioned elsewhere in the Constitution.

Question 21

A person is accused of assaulting a police officer in Montana. The person returned to Indiana before the assigned trial date. The governor of Montana asked the governor of Indiana to send the accused back to Montana to stand trial. This procedure is known as

A	The Full Faith and Credit Clause
B	Extradition
C	Writ of habeas corpus
D	Ex post facto law

Question 21 Explanation:

The correct answer is (B). Extradition involves transferring from one state to another to stand trial. The Full Faith and Credit Clause (A) allows recognition of public Acts, Records, and judicial Proceedings, but does not address returning accused individuals to a state to stand trial. A writ of habeas corpus (C) is used to determine if detaining an individual is lawful. Ex post facto law (D) is retroactively changing the legal consequences of an action.

Question 22

The paradox of democracy can best be described as

A	How to solve the issue of federalism
B	The potential of double taxation from the federal and state governments
C	Taxation without representation
D	The conflict between majority rule and individual freedom

Question 22 Explanation:

The correct answer is (D). One of the most well-known paradoxes of democracy is known as the “tyranny of the majority.” This paradox suggests that in a democratic society where decisions are made through majority rule, there is a risk that the majority may oppress or marginalize minority groups, thereby undermining the principles of equality and individual rights that democracy is meant to uphold.

Question 23

The picket fence metaphor is an apt description of current American federalism because

A	States require federal money to create policy, while the federal government follows their lead
B	Policymakers mainly interact with others in the same policy area, regardless of whether they are federal or state employees
C	Chief executives such as mayors, governors, and the president have few powers over the legislative branch
D	The state and federal governments often have clear boundaries within specific policy areas

Question 23 Explanation:

The correct answer is (D). “Picket fence federalism” is used to describe a model of federalism where intergovernmental relations are structured around specific policy areas rather than just levels of government. In this model, various levels of government (federal, state, and local) collaborate horizontally across policy areas, resembling the image of picket fences arranged side by side rather than a strict hierarchy of authority.

Question 24

Which of the following Amendments is used to resolve conflicts between the state and federal government?

A	22nd Amendment
B	7th Amendment
C	10th Amendment
D	27th Amendment

Question 24 Explanation:

The correct answer is (C). The 10th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution states that any powers not delegated to the federal government, nor prohibited to the states, are reserved to the states or the people. This amendment is often cited in resolving conflicts between state and federal authority by emphasizing the division of powers between the two levels of government.

Question 25

At times, the national government gives the states money to encourage them to adapt national goals or policies established by Congress. This is an example of

A	National federalism
B	Dual federalism
C	Implied federalism
D	Fiscal federalism

Question 25 Explanation:

The correct answer is (D). Fiscal federalism is one level of government withholding or providing money or resources to a different level of government with a goal of influencing governmental behavior. Dual federalism (B) describes clear boundaries of responsibilities among levels of government in a policy area. The other terms are not commonly identified forms of federalism.

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